[KaosTheory]

I didn't write this so I don't have any comment really.



Iamfree wrote: 2 Corinthians 5:8 says to be absent from the body means to be present with the Lord. How do you explain this?







Well I guess I would have to say that the Bible has contradicted itself.



If we die and go to Heaven then how do we reconcile this passage?



1 Thessalonians 4:16

"For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. "



Lazarus (Jesus' friend) died and was resurrected. There was no mention of him going to Heaven or Hell or anywhere.



John 11:11

"After he had said this, he went on to tell them, "Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep; but I am going there to wake him up."



Jesus did not say that Lazarus has gone to Heaven or Hell or pegatory.



1 Corinthians 15:6

"After that, he appeared to more than five hundred of the brothers at the same time, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep. "



1 Corinthians 15:20

"But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who have fallen asleep. "



1 Thessalonians 4:14

"We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in him. "



1 Thessalonians 4:15

"According to the Lord's own word, we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left till the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep. "





And these passages:



Mark 12:25

"When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven. "



Isaiah 26:19

"But your dead will live; their bodies will rise. You who dwell in the dust, wake up and shout for joy. Your dew is like the dew of the morning; the earth will give birth to her dead. "