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Originally Posted by DCLXVI
If a debt is merely discharged but not paid when FRN are used, then cannot one just claim the original debt as unpaid and file it as a loss on their tax return?
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Good question. Can debt be paid with a debt instrument? I have been told "NO", but it seems to be the case for some decades to use funny money to pay "debts" off with.
One should not generate debt if you cannot or has no intentions of paying it to begin with. "Theft" comes to mind.