[Notorial dissent]

Originally Posted by manros

Thank you for your insight and support.

I believed no one did lend me money. And of course, I want to keep my home. Let us assume they did lend the money to me...How was it? (I never did see that money).
So you’re claiming, that what, leprechauns paid for your house? The seller obviously got something, or they wouldn’t have signed the deed, now would they? So whether or not you ever actually saw the money is irrelevant. The Seller got paid, it had to come from somewhere.

If not for the home, for the principle. I want the matter very clear to me.
Commendable.

Should I ask for the note back then? I am ready to tell them, ..."Take the home, if you think it is yours; but give me the note I gave you at first; the note is mine"
The note belongs to the lender once it is signed, it is no longer yours. It is their asset, your obligation. You get it back, cancelled marked paid, when the loan is satisfied.

My common sense-may be a little childish- tells me that if they gave me the home after I gave them the note...I should have the note back in my possession if they will take the house away for me.
A valid point, but the note is cancelled once the mortgage is paid, either by you or by the purchaser in foreclosure. You would need to contact the lender or final holder to get it.

By the way...Could I sell the equity of my home to some one? Why should they take the entire value of the home and not only what is owed to them? My childish logic tells me I should expect a check for the diffference, at least that.
If you have equity value above the value of the loan then why is it in foreclosure?

As of now, just knowing how they got that ELUSIVE , INVISIBLE money they gave me...sounds good to me.

You’ll have to ask that pesky leprechaun.