[rottweiler]

Notice the net effect of these Enabling Acts in relation to state taxes and state statutes:

‘After exclusive jurisdiction over lands within a State have been ceded to the United States, private property located thereon is not subject to taxation by the State, nor can state statutes enacted subsequent to the transfer have any operation therein.’ Surplus Trading Company v. Cook, 281 U.S. 647; Western Union Telegraph Co. v. Chiles, 214 U.S. 274; Arlington Hotel v. Fant, 278 U.S. 439; Pacific Coast Dairy v. Department of Agriculture, 318 U.S. 285

By definition a Land Patent is the only form of proof of absolute title to Land in the United States of America. “A patent is the highest evidence of title and is conclusive as against the government and all claiming under junior patents or titles” U.S. v. Stone 2 US 525. The patented “grant of land is a public law standing on the statute books of the State, and is notice to every subsequent purchaser under any conflicting sale made afterward.” Wineman v. Gastrell 2 U.S. App. 581. “State statutes that give less authoritative ownership of title than the patent can not even be brought into federal court” Langdon v. Sherwood, 124 U.S. 74, 81. Land patents are granted to the named party and to their heirs and assigns forever.
http://www.teamlaw.org/PatentHowTo.htm

Originally Posted by robhalford88

I think you will find there is NO allodial title in North America as all land is STILL beholden to the crown. I will see if I can find some info for you, but don't hold your breath. Winston Shrout had mentioned this on one of his dvds.
Even if the US Republic was in charge, they have eminent domain, which to me, tells you there is NO allodial title. Otherwise, you could never be dispossessed by any manner if you were the legitimate owner.