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Old 01-31-2008, 12:29 PM
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David Merrill David Merrill is online now
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Join Date: May 2005
Location: Colorado.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by amenmesse
Hammurabis Code (online)
§ 116. If the distress has died in the house of his distrainer, of blows or of want, the owner of the distress shall put his merchant to account, and if he be the son of a freeman (that has died), his son one shall kill; if the slave of a free-man, he shall pay one-third of a mina of silver, and he shall lose all that he gave whatever it be.

Let me work this statute with the proper names for description.

§ 116. If the distress(Seti II) has died in the house of his distrainer (in Gods possession), of blows or of want(God to Moses-if you see my face you will die), the owner of the distress(Abraham) shall put his merchant(God of Israel) to account, and if he be the son of a freeman (that has died)(Seti II), his(God) son(Jesus) one shall kill; if the slave of a free-man, he shall pay one-third of a mina of silver, and he shall lose all that he gave whatever it be.
Understand yet? When God and Abraham are making their covenant they are in Babylon. The lex locus contractus stipulates the terms and conditions of agreements. Before this agreement Abraham had allodium in his offspring (his nation). After the agreement with God
Abrahm had the legal title to the nation, God had the equitable title to the nation. The nation becomes chattels (slaves)(property) capable of having title transferred. Enter Moses. Pharaogh having been sitting on his throne became isolated from reality and began to become psychotic. This happens to people when they go into isolation. He theorises his enemies will come against him and the Israelites will join against him. So he orders the Israelite male babies killed. Israel is the debtor nation and Egypt is the creditor nation and this leads the property of Abraham into Egyptian slavery. (Theft of Abrahams property who holds legal title to Israel.) Abrahams merchant (God) has the legal duty to restore full value of the property (Israel) so he enters the House of Pharaogh to distrain the property of the debtor,(the first borns die). Pharaogh is the debtor to Abraham for taking the male babies which would have worked to pay off the debt due from Israel to Pharaogh. God, the merchant of Abraham building a mighty nation for Abraham now owes the debt of retribution due to Abraham under Hammurabi Code section 116. Some thousands of years later enter Gods payment to Abraham, Jesus the first born of God. Understand now? Jesus was killed by God, to fulfill sec 116. Someones hand had to do the acting to make the death (Judas goat). Rome and the Pharisees fulfill this part. So who killed Jesus? God, Rome and Pharisees.


Delightful model.

I think it probably fits reality of law much more closely than the counterpoint model where Jesus is a Sacrificial Lamb according to the Levites.



Regards,

David Merrill.

P.S. I think Ned was quite passionate about this thread:

http://www.jesus-on-taxes.com/user/J...ruary08(2).pdf

And disputing my point of view. However I do not think my point of view was different enough to beg much a dispute. I feel that Jesus plainly accused the temple priest of using other coinage from other realms for running the Temple, paying expenses when the priest pulled the Tiberias denarion from his purse. Jesus, like with the 501(c)(3) "church" today, was saying that the Temple obviously belonged to Caesar - not God. And I believe the Temple Tax was a contraction on the drachma, because on the paying tax part of everything, the priests were demanding the pilgrims have to buy drachmas at the moneychanger tables.

So in many ways Ned and I have agreed all along. When Jesus lost his temper, that is what I believe got him in serious trouble with the Herodians in their Roman Temple.

Also: http://www.jesus-on-taxes.com/user/NED'SBLOGARCHIVESFeb06.pdf
__________________
Quote:
Originally Posted by Shoonra
It is worth noting that the fealty to the Pope, which you cited for its explicit mention of the Templar abbey in Dover, is the legal basis for the invalidation of the Magna Carta after it was sealed at Runnymede.
During discussion about the Treaty of 1213 and the Magna Charta (1215).

http://www.yale.edu/lawweb/avalon/medieval/magframe.htm
http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/source/john1a.html
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