[Shoonra]

Originally Posted by robhalford88

Not meaning to cause trouble, but how do you figure Jesus was a jew?

Supposedly, a Jew is of the house or Tribe of Judah, yet Jesus was from the house of David, so that is one thing.

Now we know somebody who played hooky from Sunday School.

There is or was no "tribe" of David, but David was, himself, a member of the Tribe of Judah, and Jesus, in turn, a descendant of David and therefore also descended from the Tribe of Judah.

The word Jew, however, although probably derived from the Kingdom of Judea or the Tribe of Judah, was not confined to those descended from Judah, The designation of Jew appears to begun after the Babylonian Conquest, and was applied indiscrimately to all adherents of the Mosaic religion. Its first use in the Bible is in the book of Esther, circa 5th century BC, to describe Mordecai, even though he is clearly descended from the Tribe of Benjamin (Esther 2:5). Thereafter, chronologically, the word is used for all the people formerly called Hebrew or Israelites.

Jesus must have been a Jew or else his parents would not have presented him at the Temple in Jerusalem, nor would have been allowed to read the scroll in the synagogue, nor would he have observed the Passover.

Originally Posted by robhalford88

Also, the word Jew didn't exist until the 18th century, so there is another one.

And the same person ditched regular school as well.

Inasmuch as the word Jew appears in both the Old and New Testament, its existence in the Biblical languages of Hebrew and Greek date from Biblical times. And in other languages from, at least, the first translation of the Bible into each language. We know the word appeared in the first English version of the Bible (ca. 1380), about the same time as it appeared in Chaucer and in Piers Plowman.