03-31-2008, 10:44 AM
|
|
Practice Makes Perfect
|
|
Join Date: Feb 2008
Posts: 253
|
|
Quote:
|
Originally Posted by mrg
What is the distinction between slavery and involuntary servitude?
Why were both INCLUDED in 13?
|
The Supreme Court tells you why:
Quote:
That a personal servitude was meant is proved by the use of the word 'involuntary,' which can only apply to human beings. The exception of servitude as a punishment for crime gives an idea of the class of servitude that is meant. The word servitude is of larger meaning than slavery, as the latter is popularly understood in this country, and the obvious purpose was to forbid all shades and conditions of African slavery. It was very well understood that in the form of apprenticeship for long terms, as it had been practiced in the West India Islands, on the abolition of slavery by the English government, or by reducing the slaves to the condition of serfs attached to the plantation, the purpose of the article might have been evaded, if only the word slavery had been used.
SLAUGHTER-HOUSE CASES, 83 U.S. 36 (1872)
|
|