[monk3]

I have a ? If I understand the banking ****, in short my debt to the bank is their asset right or wrong?

So my question is that if these banks are writing down billions in assets, then that means the are writing down my debt. and if so does that mean if it can be proven so that it should roll down hill to the customer? I know they will never say it should, but could it be argued in court that if they can not show a note then it proves the note was part of a write down??

Maybe a stretch but I was just wondering what you all thought about this and if there is any foundation for this argument.