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Of course even if option #1 fails ("even-exchange based on cost")...that leaves #2,3,4 etc. "Loan proceeds" is a very hard nut to crack. Instead of selling my capital I use it for collateral and just borrow against it, or use it to finance a 'caution' policy against investment losses.
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It's also a very hard fact to establish when (a) the other party to the transaction says, "Loan? What loan? I just paid the guy $100K in salary. There was no loan.", and (b) there's no documentary evidence prepared before the fact evidencing a loan.
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I shall keep that in mind! This is the point I have been trying to stress on a few threads now. Now you have confirmed it.
Of course there is that clash of beliefs...and this is the proof of the whole matter in the first place: why is ANY characterization more accurate than another? It's all subjective, not truly economic or mathematic.
but...
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Originally Posted by farmer_giles_of_ham
Who cares? We aren't talking about deductions, we are talking about even getting to the point of "capital gains income", which occurs BEFORE deductions: the subject of this thread pertains to "gross".
This has already been explained to you.
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Originally Posted by mertensv16
No, it hasn't, because I'd have remembered something so incoherent.
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If you really cant understand this... its no wonder you cant see the remedy. Maybe you just don't want to see it. Yes, its "u.s.persons and others treated as such for tax purpose..." not merely 'u.s. citizens'. Your speech is more accurate than mine.
Maybe you can convince a jury that
nerdliness is next to godliness. To "para-quote" a fellow poster on a different thread:
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ezrhythm:
Woe unto those who nit pick irrelevance and perpetuate the deception!
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The remedy,though, is in the bigger picture.