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Originally Posted by Notorial dissent
That would be a NO. Texas declared independence from Mexico in 1836. It maintained both independence and its borders until 1845 when it was annexed into the United States. In 1846 war was declared and from 1846 to 1848 the US and Mexico fought over the southern border. Mexico lost and ceded control over what is now CA, NV, UT, AZ, and small western parts of NM and CO. The southern bits of AZ and NM were purchased from Mexico in 1853 under what is known as the Gadsden Purchase. Side point, in the treaty itself, Article X guaranteeing the protection of Mexican land grants was deleted by the US Senate.
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Thanks Nd, I stand corrected.
However, there still remains considerable debate as to whether the annexation was procured lawfully, as such was done through an act of Congress rather than by treaty, since Texas was supposedly a sovereign nation.
Additionally, it is questionable whether Texas was sovereign, since it simply seceded itself from Mexico. Its interesting how the US can acknowledge the secession of territory from a foreign sovereign, but twenty years later deny that right when it itself is involved.
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Originally Posted by David Merrill
Pay for things in lawful money and you own them. Allodial title. That is when there is no higher title than the owner's title.
What I think you are doing is looking for a paper to prove you own the land in allodium. Absence of any higher title than your ownership and usage it allodial title.
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David, of course you are correct here, but it is the proper paper trail that proves the ownership. Lawful money perfects its allodial character.
gldskr