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Originally Posted by GenXPatriot
David,
Yes I know there is a difference between a US Note and a FRN. Sorry if the last post was not "correct". 5 hours of sleep and two infants don't do much for making me and english major.
I attached the article I was refering to. Like I said I am new to this. Is there anything that qualifies as a simple answer?
Or can someone else answer my question???
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Please be patient with my being abrupt. When I read a post a few times and cannot piece it together I look for an incorrect presumption. Now that you see the incorrect presumption you made, I figure you have withdrawn the question. But you have not so I will try again but building on what I already told you about the $.22 in the $42.22/ounce above.
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Ok. So what about the coins Vs. Dollars?
According to the 1984 article coins did not fall under FR. May be a pain in the ass (lol) but what about only using dollar coins and smaller change?
Any info on that?
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The $.22 in coin is an absurdity. This is because the coins are fractional values for two disparately valued currencies. When we dabble in the metaphysics of law, we must do our best to reconcile absurdities with reality. And the only truth to use is that when we endorse the private credit from the Fed, we and our substance becomes the bond behind the elasticity that has cause this discrepancy - now 2000% between the two currencies that the coins divide equally into the units of.
In other words there should be two sets of coins. The ones that say US Dollars and the ones that say Federal Reserve Tokens.
Regards,
David Merrill.