Another thread got me to thinking, and I can't find anything I'm looking for.


1) By law, judges pay no income tax. Well, not supposed to. There's a Supreme Court case that decided that (one of the things I can't find).


2) But there's also a "something" I used to have that documents how the IRS "monitors" judges.


Where this is going:


The court's mythical "reasonable man" would not be out of place for wanting to verify that the judge WAS "impartial" regarding matters of the IRS, i.e., was not "paying income taxes," etc.


Or, conversely, how can a judge, yielding to pressure from the IRS, be expected to be "fair and impartial" in matters regarding income taxes?


Randy