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Originally Posted by palani
I ran across this is the U.S. Code and it gives one pause to reflect just what ones status actually is.
Found here --- http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/se...2----000-.html ---
If nobody has a right to own property does that equate to everyone having the same right (i.e., none at all)? Are you a white citizen or a U.S. citizen? Evidently it is not possible to be both by the construction of this paragraph. If you were both you would have a double right, wouldn't you? JRB, Shoonra, IDOKNOW, help!!!
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Likewise, I am not one of those in which you have requested a response from,, but oh well.. I will take a shot at it anyway.
IMHO, I believe this passage of statutory construction that you have cited, is at best, an attempt to place the voluntary 14th amendment citizens on the same level as the sovereign. Only a sovereign can OWN land. Take heed of the term OWN.. which implies holding true and un-challengeable TITLE to the land.
Roughly 98% of the land within the continental USofA is patented land, and is still listed within the BLM under the name of the TRUE title holder. When the land was patented, the USofA ceded their right to the land unless the patent stipulated particular reservations made by the USofA. That same land you are living on, presuming you are not living on land that was not patented, patented and is under equity jurisdiction based upon a mortgage. A mortgage is an inferrior right to usage as compared to the land patent. Anyone within the chain of mortgage holders or heirs to the property could conceivably claim the land through process and conceivably re-claim the land.
To prove my point. If there is a mortgage on your house (not land), inquire with your mortgage company company whether or not a TRUE title to the land is going to be issued to you upon completion of the required payments on the mortgage. They will undoubted attempt to pursuade you that the certificate of ownership is the title.. but the supreme court has stipulated otherwise... stating in numerous cases that the patent is the supreme proof of ownership. The mortgage company can no more issue you a TRUE title than I could. They do not have the TITLE and do not have the authority to issue a Patent. You have been hoodwinked into believing the mortgage company in their claim of ownership authorizing them the ability to sale the property. They (the mortgage company/title company) and you are at best in adverse possession of the land.
You want the land free and clear... ??? You definitely have a long and arduous legal battle ahead of you. I wish you the best of luck.
Jerry.