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Originally Posted by KITCHIE
A froend of mine posed this question to me and I told him I would ask you.
In a murder committed in 1849 did it come under common law or equity?
If it comes under common law, what was the law they applied?
If it came under equity did that fall under a statute?
Kitchie
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Well, i'll supopose and say the following base on what is going on now:
1849 clearly predates the SCOTUS opinion of Erie v. Thompson of 1933;
and it predates the faux 14th and 13th Amendments;
and (i note for myself) that it might also have occured in a Territory which,
if true, would have put the act under federal jurisdiction of Congress;
otherwise, if in a fully-joined state, i think it would most likely
be a common law crime.
with ensuing death sentence and all.