Family Rights Discuss Family Rights such as Home Schooling, Raising Children, and dealing with the CPS (Child Molestation Service) seizure of children.


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  #1  
Old 07-24-2005, 10:53 PM
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hooded50 hooded50 is offline
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What the Judge does NOT want you to know. . .

What is happening in today's Courts ["Family Law" Courts included] is very simple, and several people here have hit the nail on the head. It's all commerce ! It's all about "contract law".

The "United States" is a Federal corporation [see 28 USC 3002(15)(A)]. It is nothing more than a fictitious corporate business entity doing business for profit through the use of contracts. All 50 "States" in the "United States" are founding members of the Federal corporation known as the "United States". This makes all 50 "States" corporate agents for the "United States". The "States" are all fictitious business entities, as well. For example, the "State of California" cannot answer questions, or perform any other physical action to prove its presence. Hence, it is a "fictitious entity" because it does not exist to the sovereign man. It is a fictitious "person", doing business for profit (as is evidenced by the fact that every "State" has a "Treasury") through contracts (Where there is no contract, there is no obligation. See Erie R. Co. v. Tompkins, 364 U.S. 64).

For example, if you're ever charged in a Court in the "State of California" (or any other "State"), look at the paperwork. It says the "State of California vs. You". You have the right to face all of your accusers. Therefore, since the "person" known as the "State of California" is the "person" who brought the charges, call the "person" known as the "State of California" foreward to answer your questions, and watch the judge's face. He'll almost choke over his own tongue to tell you that the "attorney" is "representing" the "State of California".

Here's where it gets fun. It is established that the "State of California" (and all other "States") is nothing more than a business. In order for a business to have a claim against a sovereign man, the business must be able to do two very important things. It must be able to show that it had the sovereign under contract, and it must be able to state a claim against the sovereign upon which relief may be granted. If the "attorney" that is representing the "State" cannot show a contract between you and him/the "State", nor can he/the "State" state a claim against you upon which relief may be granted, then he/the "State" is nothing more than a third party debt collector, and you can refuse to "do business" with him/the "State".

The same is true of the judge, because he is an "agent" for the "State" as well. If the judge cannot show a contract between you and he, and state a claim against you upon which relief may be granted, then he is nothing more than a third party debt collector, and you may refuse to do business with him just as you can with any other "business" (or its "agents").

This is where alot of people are making mistakes. The "State" (all 50 of them) does not have jurisdiction over you, unless you give them permission so to do! You don't have to go into their "Courts". You can demand the judge to show a contract and state a claim against you upon which relief may be granted, else dismiss the case with prejudice for failure to state a claim upon which relief may be granted.
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Old 07-25-2005, 07:09 AM
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Very well said/written...

...and welcome to Suijuris.
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Old 07-25-2005, 07:09 AM
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charlesa6 charlesa6 is offline
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Hooded50. welcome to the forum!
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Old 08-03-2005, 08:05 PM
gatorguy3 gatorguy3 is offline
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Okay, so this is similar to the "Department of Revenue" as it is a fictitious entity and does not have a contract with me nor is it able to state a claim of which relief may be granted.

Is there any case law supporting this? I mean cases where a sovereign person has presented a case in this manner and has been left alone?
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Old 08-03-2005, 09:45 PM
HHand
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by hooded50
What is happening in today's Courts ["Family Law" Courts included] is very simple, and several people here have hit the nail on the head. It's all commerce ! It's all about "contract law".

The "United States" is a Federal corporation [see 28 USC 3002(15)(A)].

why dont you read the law before you just cut some garbage from somebody elses web site? it actually says"(15) ''United States'' means -
(A) a Federal corporation;
(B) an agency, department, commission, board, or other entity
of the United States; or
(C) an instrumentality of the United States."

there are a lot of federal corporations like the post office, the couple of mortgage corporations, and more. the law doesn't say that the government is a federal corporation learn to read that kind of stupid misreading of law or taking someone elses word without checking is what got a lot of us in trouble in the first place
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Old 08-03-2005, 11:35 PM
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HHand,

You ever think about the fact that a "corporation" has many parts to it? How about a corporation that has "an agency, department, commission, board, or other entity", which can also be construed as "an instrumentality of the" corporation.

But I guess you didn't give that much thought.

Have you given much thought to the fact that the "United States" and the "United States of America" are 2 different entities? If they are: what are the differences? If they are not: why not?

And see how I replied to your post without accusing you of spewing forth "garbage", belittling or berating you? See how easy it is to carry on a meaningful discussion?

Ice
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  #7  
Old 08-04-2005, 07:41 AM
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hooded50 hooded50 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by HHand
why dont you read the law before you just cut some garbage from somebody elses web site? it actually says"(15) ''United States'' means -
(A) a Federal corporation;
(B) an agency, department, commission, board, or other entity
of the United States; or
(C) an instrumentality of the United States."

there are a lot of federal corporations like the post office, the couple of mortgage corporations, and more. the law doesn't say that the government is a federal corporation learn to read that kind of stupid misreading of law or taking someone elses word without checking is what got a lot of us in trouble in the first place

Actually, HHand, I can read perfectly well. I never said that the "government" is a federal corporation. I said that the "United States" was a federal corporation. Therefore, if you replace the words "United States" with "federal corporation" in the above mentioned statute, it would read that "United States" means a "federal corporation", an "agency, department, commission, board, or other entity of that federal corporation", or an "instrumentality" of that "federal corporation." Any Agent, Agency, Department, etc, "of" the "United States" is a part of that federal corporation, and they are acting for it.

The "United States" is not a "government". WE THE PEOPLE are the government. The "United States" is a federal corporate company, plain and simple. It does business for profit, and it uses contracts to do so. You don't have to "do business" with the "United States" against your will any more than you have to do business with IBM, AT&T, or any other corporation. You can refuse to do business with them, and if they don't have you under contract, you have no obligation to perform for them whatsoever.

I don't post from other people's websites. I am a certified paralegal, and have forgotten more about the law than alot of attorneys will ever know. I have spent thousands and thousands of hours in the legal field with legal research and whatnot. I know by trial and error what works and what doesn't. I don't know where you're getting your information from, but it's not factual. Ice hit the nail on the head. There is a VERY REAL difference between the "United States", and the "united States of America". One is a Country, the other is a corporate Company. Another fine example is the Post Office. The law allows for the creation of a "Post Office", but there is no provision for a "Postal Service". The "United States Postal Service" is NOT the "Post Office. It is a corporation doing business for profit through contracts (implied and express). It's just that simple.

I have used this very same argument to place a ($240,000.00) non lis pendens commercial lien on the property of a State government official in my city. She had her attorney try to remove the lien, and he was unable to touch it because he was not a party to it, and he could not personally state a claim against me upon which relief may be granted. I recently began the process of filing a lien on the property of a judge here, and he said that my claim was "bogus, meritlesss, and totally without legal legs to stand on".

HOWEVER, what did that judge immediately do after making that statement? He RAN to the State's Attorney General's office, and had the Assistant A.G. send me a "scare letter". If my claim was meritless as the judge asserted, then why didn't he just ball it up and throw it away? Why did he go get an attorney, and why did he go the the highest attorney in the State? He did so because he was AFRAID for his PERSONAL PROPERTY. I sent the Asst. A.G.'s letter back to him as "accepted for value, and returned for failure to state a claim upon which relief could be granted". I also included a cover letter to him stating that he did not have a contract to do business with me, and that he could not state a claim against me upon which relief could be granted. I simply stated that if he ever tried to interfere with my business affairs again that I would file a lien on his property for damages as a result of his fraud, conspiracy to commit fraud, etc. I've not heard a peep from him since.

Gatorguy3 wanted to know about the "Department of Revenue". You don't have to take my word for it. You can perform the experiment yourself. Physically ask the "person" known as "Department of Revenue" a question and see if he physically answers you. You won't get an answer, and the reason you won't get an answer is because the "Department of Revenue" can't answer you because he is not a real "person". He is a "fictitious" entity created by the State, and is doing business for profit through contracts. His agents have to speak for him because a fiction can't speak himself. It's like asking Bugs Bunny a question, and actually expecting a non existent rabbit to answer you. It is a fictitious creation, and it cannot answer you.

If you look at your paperwork in Court, you're either being charged by the "State of XXXXXXXXX", or the "United States", or another person in the Court in and for the "State of XXXXXXXXX" or the "United States". Here's an example. If "John Doe" charges you in a State District Court in the "State of Florida", the matter is between you and John Doe only . What does the fictitious entity known as the "State of Florida" have to do with it? The "State of Florida" is not a party to any contract with you, and it cannot state a claim against you upon which relief may be granted. Therefore, its agent Courts are powerless against you untill you knowingly, willingly, and intentionally enter into a contractual agreement with the "State of Florida" to let its Court adjudicate the matter for you.

Here's the simplest way to look at it. If Ice agrees to sell me his 500 horsepower 2005 LS-7 Corvette for $40,000.00, is HHand entitled to any of the $40,000.00? No? Why not? BECAUSE HE WAS NOT A PARTY TO THE CONTRACT. The agreement was between Ice and myself only , and HHand had nothing to do with it, and no right to interfere. However, if HHand takes $20,000.00 of the money, and Ice doesn't do anything about it because he is afraid of HHand, then HHand gets a free $20,000.00 that he was not entitled to, but, by Ice's failure to act, HHand is deemed to have taken the money by permission because Ice did not assert his rights. Are you beginning to see how the "Courts" work now?

Gatorguy3 also wanted to know if there was any "case law". There most certainly is. Peruse the case of Erie R. Co. v. Tompkins, 304 U.S. 64. In said case, a man was struck by an object sticking off of a train. The man sued the company that owned the train, but the Supreme Court held that, because Tompkins did not have a contract to do business with Erie Railroad Company, that Erie Railroad Company was not liable to Tompkins. The Supreme Court effectively held in that case that the Courts in America would, from that point forth, no longer rule according to Public Law (common law), but according to Public Policy (contract/admiralty law). This (Public Policy) is where the UCC comes from. The Supreme Court in Erie effectively held that where there is no contract, there is no case/obligation to perform. The UCC is in harmony with that principle and upholds it 100%.

This is why you hear some judges say "If you mention the Constitution again, I'll hold you in contempt!" How can the judge say that if he has an Oath of Office to uphold the Constitution as the supreme Law of the Land as required by the Constitution at Article 6 Clauses 2 and 3? It is because you CONTRACTED with the judge to enter into his Admiralty jurisdiction, and by doing so you agreed to GIVE UP your Constitutional common law rights. Article I Section 10 of the Constitution says that no State shall make or pass any law impairing the obligations of contract. Once you've entered into a contract with the judge/State, NO ONE may interfere with that contract. However, if you haven't made any such agreement, then the judge must have a claim against you upon which relief may be granted before he has the required jurisdiction over you to have the authority to hold you in "contempt" and put you in jail.

It's all smoke and mirrors. It's all IN COMMERCE.

Last edited by hooded50 : 08-04-2005 at 08:07 AM.
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Old 08-04-2005, 09:21 PM
sadie sadie is offline
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hooded50

Does this only work in suits brought by the State, City etc?

How would that work in suits with a Credit Card Bank or Mortgage Company?

Doesn't that actually consist of a Fictional Corporate entity suing a Fictional person (ALL CAPS)?

So how does the real human being fit into the picture?

If you don't go to court and just send back the summons, the judge will issue a sumary judgment by default - against the ALL CAPS fICTION.

But then the atty. gets the judge to issue a writ of garnishment and goes after your bank acct. or paycheck, trying to make you the responsible party for the ALL CAPS FICTION.
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Old 08-04-2005, 09:58 PM
gatorguy3 gatorguy3 is offline
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Hooded50:

In my case, I have not entered into a contract with the Department of Revenue. The only reason they are involved at this point is my son's mother decided to request Welfare and was approved. She has other children from another relationship. She nor the Department of Revenue have gone after the father of the other children for repayment. The State has set my support requirement and arrears of which I have not voluntarily paid. They have garnished what she has received.

My license has also been suspended, thereby interferring with my time with my child. I have not seen my child in months and was forced through the motions without being allowed to speak. The divorce and custody was finalized but is in limbo, as I have stated in another thread. What knowledge do you have on this?
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Old 08-05-2005, 07:27 AM
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hooded50 hooded50 is offline
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:-)

Quote:
Originally Posted by sadie
hooded50

Does this only work in suits brought by the State, City etc?

How would that work in suits with a Credit Card Bank or Mortgage Company?

Doesn't that actually consist of a Fictional Corporate entity suing a Fictional person (ALL CAPS)?

So how does the real human being fit into the picture?

If you don't go to court and just send back the summons, the judge will issue a sumary judgment by default - against the ALL CAPS fICTION.

But then the atty. gets the judge to issue a writ of garnishment and goes after your bank acct. or paycheck, trying to make you the responsible party for the ALL CAPS FICTION.

Sadie, this works in everything you do. Everything in every aspect of your life is in commerce. It works with Federal, State, City, and with every private citizen you "do business" with.

As far as Banks and Credit Card companies, you have two things working in your favor. First is the fact that, since the State is not a party to the contract between you and the bank, then if the judge cannot state a claim against you upon which relief may be granted, then he is without jurisdiction to adjudicate any matter related to you.

Second is the fact that, when you sign a "promissory note" at the bank, the bank is not loaning you its own money. It is loaning you your own credit. You are agreeing to pay the bank the face value of the promissory note, plus interest, and it's your money all along. They make a killing off of you, but they never pay you back the money they owe you.

Any time anyone ever sends me a "summons", I always make a copy for my records. Then I send it back to the person stamped "accepted for value, and returned for failure to state a claim upon which relief may be granted." On the date of the trial, I show up in Court, and demand that the judges and lawyers either state a claim against me upon which relief may be granted, or dismiss the case with prejudice for failure to state a claim upon which relief may be granted (read: sit down and shut up).
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