To be, or not to be... question?

(All imput is appreciated)

For example:

A Consent Judgment of Divorce is purposed under the seven day rule. Opposing party timely object's to the presentment, and the court rule established that when an objection is recorded with clerk of court, the opposite side is required to schedule hearing on objection with court.

Instead of scheduling the hearing on the objection the attorney crossed out "Consent" then registered the alleged Judgment without following the court rule.

Question: Is this a valid Judgment?

It is if one who it purports to "judge" obeys it.

Otherwise, no.

Henry Franklin