Common law bs

[goffertrap]

I love how some people attempt to persuade others of the strength of common law. Here's how to beat those bs liens:

"2) A person may not file a nonconsensual common-law lien upon the real or personal property of an individual or organization.

(3) (a) If a nonconsensual common-law lien is filed against the real or personal property of an individual or organization, the individual or organization may petition the district court in the county in which the affected property is located to remove the nonconsensual common-law lien. If the district court determines that the lien in question is a nonconsensual common-law lien, the district court shall enter an order directing the appropriate public official to remove the nonconsensual common-law lien.

(4) The person filing the nonconsensual common-law lien is liable for the costs of removing the nonconsensual common-law lien, including reasonable attorney fees, court costs, and actual damages sustained by the aggrieved individual or organization as a result of the nonconsensual common-law lien."

That's what I'm talking about!

[psholtz]

These are really just perversions of the common law.

[palani]

What is bs?

Do you consider common law bs?

Is a valid nonconsentual mechanics lien bs?

What is the source of your bs?

Are you a person?

Are you an individual?

Are you an organization?

Is a county real or imaginary?

Is a district court real or imaginary?

Is this based on facts based on your personal knowledge or within your possession?

Is an IRS lien on property also considered non-consenual?

Does this code snippet apply equally to all parties, IRS included?

[goffertrap]

Originally Posted by palani

What is bs?

Do you consider common law bs?

Is a valid nonconsentual mechanics lien bs?

What is the source of your bs?

Are you a person?

Are you an individual?

Are you an organization?

Is a county real or imaginary?

Is a district court real or imaginary?

Is this based on facts based on your personal knowledge or within your possession?

Is an IRS lien on property also considered non-consenual?

Does this code snippet apply equally to all parties, IRS included?

I think if you read that which was posted, you would answer each and every question you have about bogus liens. A lien from the IRS, or your local mechanic have nothing to do with non-consentual common law liens. Sorry.

No, I don't follow the common law of england. If you are talking about common law in the US of A, sure, it's called case law too.

I believe only three states call it common law, but they too now use statutory laws. You find a court that your common law of england works(within the US of A) please let me know, I would love to visit an inbred town in the sticks littered with hillbilly's.

[palani]

Originally Posted by goffertrap

I think if you read that which was posted, you would answer each and every question you have about bogus liens. A lien from the IRS, or your local mechanic have nothing to do with non-consentual common law liens. Sorry.

No, I don't follow the common law of england. If you are talking about common law in the US of A, sure, it's called case law too.

I believe only three states call it common law, but they too now use statutory laws. You find a court that your common law of england works(within the US of A) please let me know, I would love to visit an inbred town in the sticks littered with hillbilly's.

From the law dictionary used by Congress:

A
LAW DICTIONARY
ADAPTED TO THE CONSTITUTION AND LAWS OF
THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
AND OF THE
SEVERAL STATES OF THE AMERICAN UNION

With References to the Civil and Other Systems of Foreign Law

by
John Bouvier

Note the highlighted text and ponder the reference to Civil and other systems of Foreign Law.

After you have determined in your own mind just how exactly Civil law can be considered a Foreign Law consider the following statement Mr Bouvier makes in his Introduction to the same work

The author was induced to believe, that an occasional comparison of the civil, canon, and other systems of foreign law, with our own,[ix] would be useful to the profession, and illustrate many articles which, without such aid, would not appear very clear; and also to introduce many terms from foreign laws, which may supply a deficiency in ours.

So now you are telling us all that common law, which derives its' power from customs handed down over several thousands of years, is only fit for an inbred town in the sticks littered with hillbilly's. You would rather throw out 1/3 of the history of the human race because the events of the last 50 years have proven to be so overwhelmingly successful. I suppose when debt is made equivalent to substance the 8 trillion dollar debt of the U.S. appears to be mighty attractive to you.

[psholtz]

Originally Posted by goffertrap

I think if you read that which was posted, you would answer each and every question you have about bogus liens. A lien from the IRS, or your local mechanic have nothing to do with non-consentual common law liens. Sorry.

No, I don't follow the common law of england. If you are talking about common law in the US of A, sure, it's called case law too.

I believe only three states call it common law, but they too now use statutory laws. You find a court that your common law of england works(within the US of A) please let me know, I would love to visit an inbred town in the sticks littered with hillbilly's.

During the Cold War, East Germany was called the "German Democratic Republic"..

Do you think E. Germany was very democratic or very republican?

Don't get hung up on labels.

The common law is the common law.. for the most part it does not exist in the United States, since the common law requires (a) (private) property and (b) gold in order to operate, neither of which exist anymore in the U.S., no matter what labels you hang on your case law, etc.

[DCLXVI]

Originally Posted by psholtz

The common law is the common law.. for the most part it does not exist in the United States, since the common law requires (a) (private) property and (b) gold in order to operate,

Can (a) or (b) this be proved/evidenced?

[goffertrap]

Originally Posted by palani

So now you are telling us all that common law, which derives its' power from customs handed down over several thousands of years, is only fit for an inbred town in the sticks littered with hillbilly's. You would rather throw out 1/3 of the history of the human race because the events of the last 50 years have proven to be so overwhelmingly successful. I suppose when debt is made equivalent to substance the 8 trillion dollar debt of the U.S. appears to be mighty attractive to you.

Is that really what I said? Or is that what you WISH I had said. I never said "fit" did I?

I don't know what this 8 trillion dollar debt of your's has to do with the price of rice in china, but whatever.

I guess I don't understand what you are babbling about Palani, sorry. If someone want's to point out a court in the United States of America, in the year 2007, that you can go in and use all this "Common Law" of yours, please, again, show me where it is. I have found no such place on a map, in a book, or on the net. I suspect, if you do find a court house that this happens in, yes, they would probably be inbred, backwardsass hillbilly's, who clearly are not up on the time. Heck, they probably wouldn't know what a flashlight was if you showed them, but they may burn you at the stake for possesing "witch craft like power's" which allows you to use evil energy to shine light out of a stick.

[psholtz]

Originally Posted by DCLXVI

Can (a) or (b) this be proved/evidenced?

It's George Gordon's definition of the common law:

http://www.georgegordon.com/

There are about as many different definitions of common law as their are people.

Gordon's makes the most sense of all that I've seen so far.

[goffertrap]

Originally Posted by psholtz

During the Cold War, East Germany was called the "German Democratic Republic"..

Do you think E. Germany was very democratic or very republican?

Don't get hung up on labels.

The common law is the common law.. for the most part it does not exist in the United States, since the common law requires (a) (private) property and (b) gold in order to operate, neither of which exist anymore in the U.S., no matter what labels you hang on your case law, etc.

Oh now. I have private property, lots of it. Although I don't have any gold, as I see no value or use for it, I bet I could go buy some with those "fake" FRN, backed by Palani's 8 trillion dollar debt.

Kidding aside, I agree and disagree with you. I agree, the common law for the most part does not exist because it has been codified. It makes the Common law of which people on this web site seem to think is the icing on the cake just about as helpfull in a court of law as would the peace of cake. You would be better off to offer the judge in the case the cake.

So, my point is, it is useless in this country for the most part. So my question is-What is the hang up on it? Do any of you Common law supporters really think you will ever win with that bunk? I mean, sit back, and really really think about it. And, if you are delusional enough to believe you stand a snowballs chance in hell, you better find a "judge" at the local ward who has the same belief's as you, because you won't find one in the Judicial system of the US of A.