
09-28-2007, 05:27 AM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Yeah, I started to do the complete abstract.
I hired the Title Search company who did my Title Insurance to "finish it". This was back on May 25th. The guy told me he would go back to the 1600's and charge me $400. Since then (4 months) I have called him several times and he refuses to call me back. One time I got him on the phone and he told me he was working on it and that he would call me every week to give me a status. He never did that. Something's not righ there.
Last month I started doing it myself; I figured I'd save $400. So far as I have spent 8 hours and it's not east because I have had to take 2 half days off from work to do this! Right now, I have gone back to only 1950. I am at the point where I'd like to hire someone else to take where I left off but I just want to be sure it will be $ well spent.
However, you are saying there can not be a mortgage? If that's the case I guess I have about 20 years to complete the search LOL
(Note, I get conflicting reports on the issue of being able to have a mortgage or not and still getting the LP/Allodial Title)
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10-01-2007, 11:08 AM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Join Date: Sep 2007
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Again, state statutes (Connecticut) give the town the power to assess the property tax. How do I circumvent state statutes?
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10-01-2007, 01:13 PM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: Arizona state
Posts: 433
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Again, state statutes (Connecticut) give the town the power to assess the property tax. How do I circumvent state statutes?
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You must first dispell from your mind that a statute is a law, that it applies to people, that it has any authority to subjugate your rights. A statute is a term of a contract that applies to PERSONS. Nothing more.
Secondly, the state, the county, the recorder of deeds, the mortgage company, the bank, the title company, etc. are all the same entity with different names and specific functions. Their common goal is to perpetually extract money from your wallet. There are two ways they can do this. By robbing you at the point of a gun or persuading (conning) you into a voluntary contract. Which method do you suppose they use?
Statutory real estate transactions only apply to PERSONS.
Registration of property only applies to PERSONS.
Obtaining a mortgage only applies to PERSONS.
So, as rottweiler explained, the first step is to pay off the mortgage. This contract contains the whole ball of detrimental wax. You may want to consider downsizing to something more affordable or private financing.
Your ace in the whole is your constitutional guarantee of the unlimited right to contract. Use it the next time you buy property instead of being led by the nose.
gldskr
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10-01-2007, 02:04 PM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Let me ask you this - do you know of any organization who loan money privately? No banks and not loan sharks lol
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10-04-2007, 08:22 PM
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Unplugged
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Join Date: Apr 2006
Posts: 55
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The answer is, "Private Lenders".
The catch is the absurd interest rates. (unless you know one yourself)
Question: What does it take to de-register my real estate from the recorder/assessor? (once it is free and clear)
*Is de-registering retro-active? Can anyone testify?
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10-05-2007, 05:05 PM
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Originally Posted by gldskr
andrewmitch
You are missing the point, that being, there is a statutory land/real estate transaction and a non statutory land/real estate transaction. Allodial title can only be achieved in a non statutory transaction. Statutes are for persons, entities or fictions. Are you such or have you contracted to be so?
gldskr
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I think you will find there is NO allodial title in North America as all land is STILL beholden to the crown. I will see if I can find some info for you, but don't hold your breath. Winston Shrout had mentioned this on one of his dvds.
Even if the US Republic was in charge, they have eminent domain, which to me, tells you there is NO allodial title. Otherwise, you could never be dispossessed by any manner if you were the legitimate owner.
__________________
RIP Vajo Jnr.
Valentine A.J. Olszak Jr. (1944 - 2007)
RIP Yankee Jim
James Leshkevich 1955-2008
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10-05-2007, 05:56 PM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: Arizona state
Posts: 433
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Originally Posted by robhalford88
I think you will find there is NO allodial title in North America as all land is STILL beholden to the crown. I will see if I can find some info for you, but don't hold your breath. Winston Shrout had mentioned this on one of his dvds.
Even if the US Republic was in charge, they have eminent domain, which to me, tells you there is NO allodial title. Otherwise, you could never be dispossessed by any manner if you were the legitimate owner.
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I am not familiar with Winston's material but I have seen sections similar to this in other constitutions.
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Originally Posted by Minnesota constitution Art.1 Sec.15
Sec. 15. Lands allodial; void agricultural leases. All lands within the state are allodial and feudal tenures of every description with all their incidents are prohibited. Leases and grants of agricultural lands for a longer period than 21 years reserving rent or service of any kind shall be void.
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Seems fairly unambiguous to me.
What gives land its allodial character? The fact that it is free, a grant, a gift. If grandma gives to me her diamond ring and I accept, can I not go and pawn (pledge) that ring for some FRN's? Would the pawnbroker not charge a premium for doing so? Isn't this a contract voluntarily entered into? Is this not exactly like how a mortgage works?
Since the state is essentially the bank or visa versa, it shouldn't surprise you that there is a property tax clause within the mortgage. Any tax that is mandatory will certainly not require an application.
gldskr
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10-05-2007, 07:41 PM
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Originally Posted by gldskr
I am not familiar with Winston's material but I have seen sections similar to this in other constitutions.
Seems fairly unambiguous to me.
What gives land its allodial character? The fact that it is free, a grant, a gift. If grandma gives to me her diamond ring and I accept, can I not go and pawn (pledge) that ring for some FRN's? Would the pawnbroker not charge a premium for doing so? Isn't this a contract voluntarily entered into? Is this not exactly like how a mortgage works?
Since the state is essentially the bank or visa versa, it shouldn't surprise you that there is a property tax clause within the mortgage. Any tax that is mandatory will certainly not require an application.
gldskr
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The way to test that is start trying to exploit natural resources without permission. See if the powers that be get upset.
__________________
RIP Vajo Jnr.
Valentine A.J. Olszak Jr. (1944 - 2007)
RIP Yankee Jim
James Leshkevich 1955-2008
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10-05-2007, 09:16 PM
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Come and Get Some!
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Join Date: Oct 2004
Location: judicial district of tens: Milwaukee the county: Wisconsin the land
Posts: 2,500
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Notice the net effect of these Enabling Acts in relation to state taxes and state statutes:
‘After exclusive jurisdiction over lands within a State have been ceded to the United States, private property located thereon is not subject to taxation by the State, nor can state statutes enacted subsequent to the transfer have any operation therein.’ Surplus Trading Company v. Cook, 281 U.S. 647; Western Union Telegraph Co. v. Chiles, 214 U.S. 274; Arlington Hotel v. Fant, 278 U.S. 439; Pacific Coast Dairy v. Department of Agriculture, 318 U.S. 285
By definition a Land Patent is the only form of proof of absolute title to Land in the United States of America. “A patent is the highest evidence of title and is conclusive as against the government and all claiming under junior patents or titles” U.S. v. Stone 2 US 525. The patented “grant of land is a public law standing on the statute books of the State, and is notice to every subsequent purchaser under any conflicting sale made afterward.” Wineman v. Gastrell 2 U.S. App. 581. “State statutes that give less authoritative ownership of title than the patent can not even be brought into federal court” Langdon v. Sherwood, 124 U.S. 74, 81. Land patents are granted to the named party and to their heirs and assigns forever.
http://www.teamlaw.org/PatentHowTo.htm
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Originally Posted by robhalford88
I think you will find there is NO allodial title in North America as all land is STILL beholden to the crown. I will see if I can find some info for you, but don't hold your breath. Winston Shrout had mentioned this on one of his dvds.
Even if the US Republic was in charge, they have eminent domain, which to me, tells you there is NO allodial title. Otherwise, you could never be dispossessed by any manner if you were the legitimate owner.
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__________________
United States never held any municipal sovereignty, jurisdiction, or right of soil in Alabama or any of the new states which were formed ... The United States has no Constitutional capacity to exercise municipal jurisdiction, sovereignty or eminent domain, within the limits of a state or elsewhere, except in the cases in which it is expressly granted ...
[Pollard v. Hagan, 44 U.S.C. 213, 221, 223]
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10-07-2007, 07:03 AM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Join Date: Sep 2007
Posts: 234
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Erik Madsen, while I like what he talks about in theory, has not been able to prove anything. And there is no way to directly contact him. So I am suspect of what's claimed on team law.
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