
04-26-2008, 11:40 PM
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Mental Jujitsu
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Join Date: Aug 2006
Posts: 616
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And Merrill blathered on, to which the appropriate AND GENERAL response is: so what??, who cares??, just more Merrillian nonsense, or as one poster put it, tl, an, dc, dr!!!!
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04-27-2008, 11:42 AM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 374
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by cashhunter
Your paper on Land Patents is very interesting ;however, you failed to realize that the Republic of Texas or now the illegal State of Texas never ceeded any land to the uSA except that part of the Republic of Texas that is now
the Oklahoma Panhandle, Half of New Mexico and Colorado and a small part of Montana.
There is no BLM in Texas and one must go to Austin to prove up on the original title which in many places were measured in leagues and varrahs.
Does anyone know just how to acquire the land patent in Texas?
Blessings,
Cash Hunter
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If that which you state is correct about no land ever was ceded to the United States from what is now considered Texas; you must look for land grants from the King of Spain to Spanish or Mexican citizens. These would have taken place when Spain owned Tejas ( I think) as part of Mexico. Allodial title would have been conferred by the King at that time. It might also be possible the Viceroy of Mexico had the power to confer allodial title to Mexicans.
You must then trace ownership from that point forward.
I hope this is helpful.
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04-27-2008, 01:16 PM
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Mental Jujitsu
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Join Date: Aug 2006
Posts: 616
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Texas was originally part of the Kingdom of Spain, and so some of the grants would have been from the Spanish Crown, later by the Vice-roys in the name of the crown, and later by the Governors and what not of Mexico for a short time after independence, and then finally and lastly by the govt of the Republic of Texas.
However, none of them would have been allodial in any sense of the word, as they were all issued conditionally, in many cases with very restricted and limited rights up to and including tenure, they were certainly always taxed, and subject to whatever govt was in existence at the time, and were and are in fact nothing more than property deeded from a govt to, usually, a citizen or colonist. A patent is nothing, but at best a fee simple deed with a fancy name, that is the beginning of the chain of title to a piece of property.
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04-27-2008, 01:22 PM
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Practice Makes Perfect
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Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: Arizona state
Posts: 433
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by cashhunter
Does anyone know just how to acquire the land patent in Texas?
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It is acquired the same as any other, except that the patent is issued by the state through the governor. I believe it is the Treaty of Hidalgo that secured the land from Mexico.
gldskr
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04-27-2008, 09:44 PM
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Mental Jujitsu
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Join Date: Aug 2006
Posts: 616
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That would be a NO. Texas declared independence from Mexico in 1836. It maintained both independence and its borders until 1845 when it was annexed into the United States. In 1846 war was declared and from 1846 to 1848 the US and Mexico fought over the southern border. Mexico lost and ceded control over what is now CA, NV, UT, AZ, and small western parts of NM and CO. The southern bits of AZ and NM were purchased from Mexico in 1853 under what is known as the Gadsden Purchase. Side point, in the treaty itself, Article X guaranteeing the protection of Mexican land grants was deleted by the US Senate.
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04-28-2008, 01:47 PM
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Come and Get Some!
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Join Date: May 2005
Location: Colorado.
Posts: 6,171
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by Palani
Just an opinion, but I think the only thing allodial out there is coins, preferrably gold or silver, otherwise known as portable soil. Base metal coins may also be claimed as allodial but frankly just aren't worth too much. A lot of effort these days is put into making coins look silvery or golden in the same way green ink is put on paper to give it a certain 'color'.
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From the first of the thread;
That is absolutely right because the coinage will divide equally into US dollars that earmark gold internationally at $42.22/ounce as well as FRNs private credit that will subdivide at about $1K/ounce Spot.
There is no marking on coins that they are for usage with the Federal Reserve only.
But what I am saying is that if you are careful to redeem lawful money, then whatever you buy is owned in allodium. If you endorse private credit, then you have never paid for anything by presenting the Fed's private credit. If you get into some kind of squabble over FRNs you may discover that the Treasury holds a first lien on anything you purchased with the Fed's private credit.
http://www.silverbearcafe.com/private/convincing.html
http://video.google.com/videoplay?do...06869308133588
Load the text file and read along when the computer voice reads you the 1984 Freedom League article.
Regards,
David Merrill.
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04-28-2008, 02:42 PM
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Waking Up
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Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 2
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by Notorial dissent
Texas was originally part of the Kingdom of Spain, and so some of the grants would have been from the Spanish Crown, later by the Vice-roys in the name of the crown, and later by the Governors and what not of Mexico for a short time after independence, and then finally and lastly by the govt of the Republic of Texas.
However, none of them would have been allodial in any sense of the word, as they were all issued conditionally, in many cases with very restricted and limited rights up to and including tenure, they were certainly always taxed, and subject to whatever govt was in existence at the time, and were and are in fact nothing more than property deeded from a govt to, usually, a citizen or colonist. A patent is nothing, but at best a fee simple deed with a fancy name, that is the beginning of the chain of title to a piece of property.
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Ok. I'm new to this idea and site, and am trying to research what is what. So, is it really possible in TX to get an allodial title, or is it practically impossible to do that sort of paper trail?(Even if you knew where to start?) Thanks for your time.
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04-28-2008, 03:30 PM
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Mental Jujitsu
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Join Date: Aug 2006
Posts: 616
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Was there some part of NO that was unapparent?
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04-28-2008, 03:35 PM
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Come and Get Some!
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Join Date: May 2005
Location: Colorado.
Posts: 6,171
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by ranchwife
Ok. I'm new to this idea and site, and am trying to research what is what. So, is it really possible in TX to get an allodial title, or is it practically impossible to do that sort of paper trail?(Even if you knew where to start?) Thanks for your time.
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Pay for things in lawful money and you own them. Allodial title. That is when there is no higher title than the owner's title.
What I think you are doing is looking for a paper to prove you own the land in allodium. Absence of any higher title than your ownership and usage it allodial title.
Regards,
David Merrill.
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04-29-2008, 09:17 AM
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Waking Up
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Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 2
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Thanks for your replies.
Notorial Dissent:
Sorry. Guess I didnt get it. Like I said, Im just a beginner trying to find the way.
Mr. Merrill:
I thank you for the time and understanding in your reply. I have always been what Alan Nation calls a "Sheeple", but my hubby has taken the last 7 years trying to undo that. Problem is, its mostly stuff he has heard, and I get to do the research! I have come across a couple websites peoples-rights.com and libertyForLife.com. Got any recommendations?
Thanks again for your time. It is truly appreciated!
Ann
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