Where is the land of Nod?

[2tim215]

Originally Posted by 2tim215

No one really knows exactly where this was. However we are told that it was on the Eastern part of Eden (Genesis 4:16). The real question I believe you are asking is how could Cain find a wife over there since according to the Bible the entire human race were all descendants of Adam and Eve.

The answer is rather simple. First of all you would have to know that Adam lived 930 years total (Genesis 5:5, keep in mind that this was before polution was introduced into the world and the environment was perfect which allowed for men to live so long). In 930 years Adam and Eve would have produced many offspring (both boys and girls) one of which would have become the eventual Mrs. Cain. As the population grew, people would have migrated to the outskirts (of Eden and elsewhere) over time such that some wound up in Nod.

This seems to be the most reasonable explanation (althoughI am sure there will be those who disagree) that is consistent with the Bible record/account.

By the way for those who are going to claim ******, there was not such thing back in those days but regardless with a 930 ywear lifespan (keep in mind Adam was born a full fledged man was never an infant) Cain could have married a second or even third cousin. We are not given specifics on who he married nor as to how old he was at the time. We are just told that he did. All we know is that he was exiled by God for being a murdurer and I'm sure his morals wouldn't have been an issue in terms of whom he decided to marry (even if it was sister which I doubt).

2tim215
2 Tim 2:15(KJV) Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

To Codee and others who are following this thread,

In reviewing my earlier post, I need to point out that although I do not believe that Cain necessarily married a sister, it is obvious that at least one son and one daughter of Adam and Eve would have had to marry in order for the population to expand over time assuming that Adam and Eve were the two original humans on the earth as is clearly stated in the Bible. Even though you didn’t mention it in your original questions (that is the “******” issue), since I brought it up, I think I need to address it further.

The first question then is, assuming that two of Adam’s siblings did in fact marry, should this then be considered ******? The answer to this I believe is no. The reason I say this is as follows:
First let’s look at the definition of ****** according to the Merriam-Webster online dictionary:
Etymology: Middle English, from Latin ******us sexual impurity, from ******us impure, from in- + castus pure -- more at CASTE
: sexual intercourse between persons so closely related that they are forbidden by law to marry; also : the statutory crime of such a relationship
In going by webster’s definition, Cain (or any other son of Adam's) marrying his sister would not be considered ****** because there were no laws against such at this time. The laws of ****** were instituted during the time of Moses which would have been about 2500 years later (Leviticus 18-20). As a note, Abraham, who lived about 400 years before Moses was married to his half-sister (Sarah).
Next, let's look at why ****** is a problem. According to genetics and leaving aside (for the moment) the psychological problems created in today's society as a result of ******ual relations we know that ****** leads to deformities in offspring. The question then is why is this the case? Without trying to make it too complex, it is due to the "defects" or "genetic imperfections" if you will in the parents or in the case of ******, the two siblings (sister and brother) which in turn get passed on to the offspring. The further away in relationship they are, the less likely these deformities will occur in offspring. I think this is accepted both scientifically and medically.

In a "normal" circumstance, that is what we would consider normal today, this would create a problem, but the circumstances in the case of Cain (son of Adam) and say one of his sisters (if that were who he married) were unique. Adam (and Eve), being the first human beings created, would have been created genetically perfect and therefore would have not had any defective genes (as we do today) as neither would their immediate offspring (such as Cain and any of Adam’ and Eve's other sons and daughters). Therefore you would not have had the problems with deformities which result from intermarrying between siblings that we have today.

Genesis 1:30 tells us that after God created Adam and Eve, that His creation was good (as was the rest of His creation). Their genes would have been perfect. However when sin entered the world, God cursed the world (you may not like it, but that’s the way we are told it happened) so that His perfect creation would now start to deteriorate, that perfect body would now suffer physucak death and begin to decay to what we now have today. Over a long period of time this degeneration would result in all kinds of mistakes occurring in the genetic material of all living things. After the flood, further degeneration would be greatly accelerated as a result of the changes in the ecology (much harsher climate) which would become more pronounced during the post-flood era. Environment and ecological changes such as greater amounts of incoming and harmful cosmic rays would cause mutations as well as things like global warming explain the reason behind these problems. This would not only have direct impact on the human body but on the food stuffs, water supply and everything else essential to our overall wellbeing.

Therefore, when you consider what we now call ****** in today’s world, it would have been natural in a world which started off with a small group which slowly expanded. This actually made sense from the standpoint that you would have much close families (without defects) which had the same values and as long as the hierarchy lived by good moral values, this would probably make for a highly moral society and a much stronger family unit.

Also this arrangement would not allow father/daughter or mother/son ****** which we know to be probably the worst of all ****** scenario types, as even then God allowed only marriage between one man and one woman which was to be forever binding therefore this danger would not exist.

2tim215
2 Tim 2:15(KJV) Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

[Shoonra]

NOD, in Genesis 4:16, means "fugitive" or "vagabond" in Hebrew and is used as such repeatedly throughout the OT. This may mean that there was not a specific geographic spot named Nod, but rather that Cain was continually wandering and nomadic for the remainder of his life.

If it were a specific place, I imagine it would have been washed away, with Eden, in Noah's Flood.

I think it is rather obvious that Cain's wife must have been consanguinous but not necessarily a sibling of Cain; she may have been a distant niece or grand-niece. I imagine that, Biblically speaking, every marriage is between people who are both descended from Adam and Eve and therefore at least very remotely consanguinous (someone calculated that every person now on earth is at least the 20th cousin to everyone else).

[Codee]

Good posts everyone!

How about this: Does it say anywhere in the bible that God made Adam and Eve and then stopped making people. Could God have kept making men and women. I can't find anywhere in the bible where it says Adam was the only man made by God. Could he be just the first and the bible is just the story of adams decendents?

Could Cain have gone to "The" land of Nod and mated with another of Gods children? Notice "the." "The" conotates a specific place and not wandering generally. Also the uppercase in "Nod" indicates it as a propper place and not a state of existance.

Lilith would seem to imply that God made men and woman more times over and with inconsistant results.

[2tim215]

Here's a link I just came across which seems to address a number of your questions. I hope it will help you.

http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/2774

2tim215
2 Tim 2:15(KJV) Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

[Shoonra]

Originally Posted by Codee

Could Cain have gone to "The" land of Nod and mated with another of Gods children? Notice "the." "The" conotates a specific place and not wandering generally. Also the uppercase in "Nod" indicates it as a propper place and not a state of existance.

Lilith would seem to imply that God made men and woman more times over and with inconsistant results.

The article and the uppercase exist only in English and not in the original Hebrew.

"Lilith" is a creature of post-Biblical folklore. The name is derived from the word for night, and its one occurrence in the OT, at Isaiah 34:14, clearly describes an animal (a subhuman), presumably nocturnal, possibly an owl.

[Codee]

Originally Posted by Shoonra

The article and the uppercase exist only in English and not in the original Hebrew.

"Lilith" is a creature of post-Biblical folklore. The name is derived from the word for night, and its one occurrence in the OT, at Isaiah 34:14, clearly describes an animal (a subhuman), presumably nocturnal, possibly an owl.

How do you find this stuff out so fast Shoonra. Good work on knowing Hebrew. That must be a valuable tool.

I have heard that Lilith was a winged creature who mated with men.

I still have not found any evidence however that God made Adam and Eve and then quit making people. Or that the "land" wiped out in the flood was over the entire plannet or just where the decendets of Adam and Eve were (Noha.)

[Codee]

Originally Posted by 2tim215

Genesis 1:30 tells us that after God created Adam and Eve, that His creation was good (as was the rest of His creation). Their genes would have been perfect. However when sin entered the world, God cursed the world (you may not like it, but that’s the way we are told it happened) so that His perfect creation would now start to deteriorate, that perfect body would now suffer physucak death and begin to decay to what we now have today.

When did Sin enter the world? Was it already around as concept and never committed? Did sin "enter" the world when the snake tempted Eve to eat the apple? Or was it when the snake thought to tempt Eve with the apple? Or was it when Eve acted upon the snakes suggestions and brought the idea physically in to the world? Or was it when Eve got adam to do it too? Also did sin exist outside the garden and then it was only a problem when it entered the garden?

I don't know. Seems like Genisis could use some serious clarifying.

If God's creations were good, why did they start to go bad?

[Shoonra]

Originally Posted by Codee

I still have not found any evidence however that God made Adam and Eve and then quit making people. Or that the "land" wiped out in the flood was over the entire planet or just where the descendants of Adam and Eve were.

The Bible mentions a few transitory persons as "men" (e.g., the angels that visited Abraham and Lot, the angel (?) that wrestled with Jacob) but there is no indication that such "persons" lived out conventional biological lives. Nor is there any Biblical statement suggesting additional creations, at least of humans.

If such a possibility were to be entertained, it would contradict a basic principle of Christianity, namely the doctrine of Original Sin. Humans descended from an ancestor other than Adam would not have inherited Adam's curse; they would, in all likelihood, be immortal and in no need of salvation.

As for Noah's Flood, it is spoken of as worldwide, and it seems that it would have been unnecessary to save all those animals or even build the ark if the Flood were localized and survival meant merely traveling to some place unreached by the Flood. The list of "nations" descended from Noah's sons indicates that they were the only survivors of a flood sufficiently widespread to have wiped out all other people, and that all mankind descends not merely from Adam but also from Noah.

[2tim215]

Originally Posted by Codee

I still have not found any evidence however that God made Adam and Eve and then quit making people.

Once God created the man and woman (Adam and Eve) there was no need for Him to create any more humans since one of His gifts to humankind was the ability to procreate. It was His intention to have his original creation to populate the earth as it is obvious that He didn't create this huge earth just for two people. Sure He could have created other humans, but there was no need to and this what He tells us in the Biblical account.
Note parts of scriptures underlined for emphasis.

Genesis 3:20 (KJV) And Adam called his wife’s name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.

The following was actually a commandment.

Genesis 1:27 - 28 (KJV) So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. 28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth.

The commandment to reproduce is a common theme you find throughout the early part of the Old Testament.

2tim215
2 Tim 2:15(KJV) Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

[Big Al]

Please define replenish.