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  #1  
Old 01-11-2007, 08:40 AM
superiorm
 
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ending property taxes

Question:
Has anyone “successfully” stopped their county tax office from requiring them to pay property taxes? I do not mean that you have just decided to stop paying them. Has the county reclassified your property status in their records?
I am trying to get my county assessor to change my property classification from “residential” to “private”. I have attached two of the letters I have mailed so-far. I realize they will not change the classification per my request. But, my thinking is that I may “after further correspondence” get them to admit they won’t change it due to taxation purposes. I would think that if I can get them to admit that, their so reason for the residential classification is for the tax, then I think I would than have legal ground for a lawsuit????????
I may be in the wrong ballpark, but that’s why I’m here on this site, for all of your help. Thanks in advance.
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  #2  
Old 01-11-2007, 10:56 AM
Notorial dissent Notorial dissent is online now
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Since there is no classification for “private” logic would dictate that NO, they are not going to reclassify your property no matter how many letters you write.

Property classifications are set by law and the assessor has to follow that law, and the tax situation is also set by state law, so again he has no option but to follow those laws, the classification also determines the tax rate as it is applied.

You have no grounds for complaint here, so don’t waste your time. The only thing you can contest is if the taxes on your property are not calculated correctly and there is an administrative procedure for dealing with that.
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  #3  
Old 01-11-2007, 12:17 PM
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rottweiler rottweiler is offline
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Are you sure you are dealing with your property here? Or is it real estate with a mortgage against it? How is it titled?


Quote:
Originally Posted by superiorm
Question:
Has anyone “successfully” stopped their county tax office from requiring them to pay property taxes? I do not mean that you have just decided to stop paying them. Has the county reclassified your property status in their records?
I am trying to get my county assessor to change my property classification from “residential” to “private”. I have attached two of the letters I have mailed so-far. I realize they will not change the classification per my request. But, my thinking is that I may “after further correspondence” get them to admit they won’t change it due to taxation purposes. I would think that if I can get them to admit that, their so reason for the residential classification is for the tax, then I think I would than have legal ground for a lawsuit????????
I may be in the wrong ballpark, but that’s why I’m here on this site, for all of your help. Thanks in advance.
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  #4  
Old 01-11-2007, 12:40 PM
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mr.yet mr.yet is offline
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Found On Landrights.com

Bob Worn, Major-USAF (Retired)

1811 Shamburger Road Pritchett, Texas 75645-2759

Phone 903-734-6970 Fax 903-734-6250

E-mail bobworn@aol.com



Registered Mail Number RR 859 401 884 US



4 September 2000



Michael L. Smith

Tax Assessor-Collector

County of Upshur

215 North Titus Gilmer, Texas 75644



Re: Request For Relief From Unlawful/Unconstitutional Taxation



Property Description: R17013 (98251)

A1 Davenport , J B B

Acres 4.194, & House

001U-S02-000-470



Dear Mr. Smith,



The purpose of this communication is to request that the taxation on the property

listed above be accomplished in the proper manner in accordance with the mandates

set forth in the Constitution of the United States of America and not as it was

done last year, that is, by erroneously appraised value.



The Constitution of the United States of America is quite clear as to how we are

to be subjected to a direct tax, namely:



Constitution of the United States of America , Article One, Section 9, Clause 4..



"No Capitation, or other direct, Tax shall be laid unless in proportion

to the census or Enumeration hereinbefore directed to be taken"





Please do not label me with the all-too-readily-used moniker of "tax protester."

That I am not. I am a conscientious, law abiding citizen that wants to pay his fair

share of the expenses of running our government and educating our children. I

just want to be on a par with all of my neighbors in doing so; share and share alike.



I can only anticipate your almost "knee-jerk" reply to a request such as this - "But

our orders come from Austin ."



Just because some lawmakers think they are acting correctly when they write an

abusive, unfair and despotic tax law, does not make it a proper law. There is one

greater measure to which all laws must be held - the Constitution of the United States of America , .......... Article 6, Clause 2



"This Constitution and the Laws of the United states which

shall he made pursuant thereof; and all Treaties made,

or which shall he made under the Authority of the United states ,

shall be the supreme Law of the land; and the Judges in every

State shall he hound thereby, any Thing in The Constitution or

Laws of any state to the Contrary notwithstanding.



This premise is further bolstered by those more learned and scholarly than I, to

wit;



"The general misconception is that any statute passed by legislators bearing the

appearance of law constitutes the law of the land. The U.S. Constitution is the

supreme law of the land, and any statute, to be valid, must be In agreement. It is

impossible for both the Constitution and a law violating it to be valid; one must

prevail. This is succinctly stated as follows:



The General rule is that an unconstitutional statute, though having the form and

name of law Is in reality no law, but is wholly void, and ineffective for any purpose;

since unconstitutionality dates from the time of it's enactment and not merely

from the date of the decision so branding it. An unconstitutional law, in legal

contemplation, is as inoperative as if it had never been passed. Such a statute

leaves the question that it purports to settle just as it would be had the statute

not been enacted.





Since an unconstitutional law is void, the general principles follow that it imposes

no duties, confers no rights, creates no office, bestows no power or authority on

anyone, affords no protection, and justifies no acts performed under it.....



A void act cannot be legally consistent with a valid one. An unconstitutional law

cannot operate to supersede any existing valid law. Indeed, insofar as a statute

runs counter to the fundamental law of the lend, it is superseded thereby.



No one Is bound to obey an unconstitutional law and no courts are bound to

enforce it"

Sixteenth American Jurisprudence, Second Edition, Section 256



In the rare instance that you would not have immediate access to the latest census

of 2000, I will state that the census of my home cited above is one (1) adult

persons.



Your timely attention to this most urgent matter will be greatly appreciated.



Respectfully Submitted,



/s/



Bob Worn
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  #5  
Old 01-11-2007, 01:21 PM
superiorm
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rottweiler
Are you sure you are dealing with your property here? Or is it real estate with a mortgage against it? How is it titled?

It is real estate with a mortgage against it.
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  #6  
Old 01-11-2007, 02:20 PM
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redy2fiyt redy2fiyt is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mr.yet
The Constitution of the United States of America is quite clear as to how we are to be subjected to a direct tax, namely:

Constitution of the United States of America , Article One, Section 9, Clause 4..

"No Capitation, or other direct, Tax shall be laid unless in proportion to the census or Enumeration hereinbefore directed to be taken"

So how would this work in comparison to an assessed property value?
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  #7  
Old 01-11-2007, 03:56 PM
Notorial dissent Notorial dissent is online now
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The Bob Wright letter, while cute, is utterly worthless. The quotes to the constitution are accurate, but apply only to the Federal government, and have nothing to do with state imposed taxes. The constitution is totally silent on the matter of states taxing, which means it is left to them to determine what they will or won't tax, and how they will do so. So that dog won't hunt as they say.

Last edited by Notorial dissent : 01-11-2007 at 03:59 PM.
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  #8  
Old 01-11-2007, 05:44 PM
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redy2fiyt redy2fiyt is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Notorial dissent
The Bob Wright letter, while cute, is utterly worthless. The quotes to the constitution are accurate, but apply only to the Federal government, and have nothing to do with state imposed taxes. The constitution is totally silent on the matter of states taxing, which means it is left to them to determine what they will or won't tax, and how they will do so. So that dog won't hunt as they say.

I was under the impression that property taxes were federal taxes.
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Peace,

-Gabe
For educational purposes only, not to be construed as legal advice.
No liability assumed, no value assured, without recourse.
He who does not assert his rights, has none.

Oh, and in case you're wondering - the profile picture is really me.
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  #9  
Old 01-11-2007, 08:27 PM
B Rookard B Rookard is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by redy2fiyt
I was under the impression that property taxes were federal taxes.

Huh?

You're kidding right?

The States were taxing property since well before the founding of the United States.

What would make anyone think that ANY court would ever find a property tax unconstitutional.

Of course, that's not to say that some State constitutions don't put limits on property taxes. But if you think that you will ever be able to say that you don't have to pay property taxes ... well, good luck getting any court to buy that. They will laugh you out of court (and by the way, they'll take your property if you don't).
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  #10  
Old 01-11-2007, 08:37 PM
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charlesa6 charlesa6 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by redy2fiyt
I was under the impression that property taxes were federal taxes.
In respond to your question: State does the property taxes under the County you live in where the property located.
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