I am currently in the process of selling my house and have been doing some digging to try to determine exactly how i should contest the excise tax of over 5 thousand dollars that the government is going to claim is due.
Note that an excise tax is a tax on a priviledged action.
After much digging, there are only a couple of possibilities...
either (a) I do not have an inalienable right to property
or (b) It is not my property and I am paying an excise tax on making money from selling the right to use some third parties property to another person.
The only way I could see (a) being true would be if somehow I have signed away my inalienable right to own property. While this is a possibility (SSN, Post Office, etc), I am thinking that (b) is the real culprit.
After much digging, this turned up...
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Washington Administrative Code
Washington Administrative Code 458-12-010
..."real property" includes but is not limited to the following:
(10) All life estates in real property, whether created by grant or a reservation. A person has such a life estate when he has a right to the possession, occupation and use of a piece of realty, and to the crops, rents and profits produced by it, during his or her natural life.
(11) All possessory rights in realty which are coextensive with the natural life of their holder. Such possessory rights are analogous to leases, and since leases for life are realty, possessory rights for life are also realty.
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These are the two definitions that fit the second possibility I noted above. Such being the case, by purchasing "realty", I established a life long lease to some undisclosed 3rd parties property.
I have little doubt that the 3rd party in question is the state.
Such being the case, perhaps your state has something along the same lines...and you also just paid a good sum of money to lease "your property" from the state.
Fortunately, there should be a couple of ways to fix this situation.
i. The first would be to find out the proper method of giving proper notice in your state as to your property being yours. (clear title back to the original patent) I would assume that the state would not step up and claim the property as it might shine too much light on what they are doing.
ii. Another possibility would be to look over your paperwork and see if it clearly states that you are simply leasing the property. Also, see if you can get any statement from the title company that noted the property was unencumbered. Once you have done so, give (someone? maybe the accesser or treasurer?) notice that the property is your private property, you lawfully purchased the property, the property was attained via contract between you and the previous owner, and the title company noted that the property was free of encumberance. Such being the case, the property is yours by right and, being yours, is not taxable unless either (a) the state has lawful claim to the property or (b) you have willfully contracted your inalienable right to own property away to the state.
Further, affirm that you have never willfully signed any valid contract giving up any of your inalienable rights and that the contract to purchase your property was between yourself and the party that transfered it to you.
If uncontested, you should then be able to notice them that
(a) they are unlawfully taxing your lawfully owned private property.
(b) doing so is ( corruption of blood? theft? something else?)
(c) doing so violates their oath to the constitution
(d) this can be remedied by correcting your properties assessment to note that it is "private property" and not subject to tax.
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Note: I could be way off base here...but this is what I am working on for myself. If I am understanding things properly, this should force the state to either (a) show itself to be the rightful owner (or have rightful claim) or (b) show the contract that it claims you gave your rights up in.
I am expecting neither to be done as (a) likely leaves them liable to a suit of fraud, conspiracy, or such and (b) is easily refutable (invalid ab inito due to fraud) unless the contract actually does clearly state that you gave up your rights to own property via some contract.
If not rebutted in a timely manner, that shows admission that you are the lawful owner of said private property.
I am still cleaning this up a bit, but it looks like this is the reason that the state is so big on realters...Use the lawyers to suck the blood from the people in court. Use the realters to suck the blood from the people directly. If realty is truly a lease interest (which it appears to be), then the problem is buying realty without properly specifying terms used in the contracts provided.
Again, don't take my word for it...this is just what I have gleaned from my digging so far.
Even more damning:
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Washington Administrative Code 458-12-045
WAC 458-12-045 Listing of real property -- Contracts for sale of public lands. Whenever any real property belonging to the United States of America, the state of Washington or any county or municipality is sold under an arrangement whereby title is reserved in the grantor and use and possession goes to the grantee, such property shall be listed as real property in the name of the grantee rather than the governmental instrumentality.
Any improvements existing on the property at the time the contract for sale is entered into or which are subsequently added after said contract shall likewise be listed as real property in the name of the grantee. (Rule derived from AGO 6-24-1947; PTB No. 167, 8-21-1947.)
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Even if they do step up and show that yes, buying "real estate" via a "realtor" is simply leasing rather than buying, then I can send details to all of the newspapers around and go door to door to various neighborhoods showing them the government stating that we are all simply renting from them.
...also, I have seen fleeting references to ways to buy real title directly from the government...but need to do more research.
Another approach might be to volunteer to pay tax when they claim it is due on the condition that they can show specifically why you are subject to the tax since it is your private property and you have never knowingly made a contract to pay such a tax to them. I am still digging currently, but it seems that there are quite a few lawful ways to contest the states assumptions while shifting the burden of proof onto them.
Disclaimer: Others here probably know much better than me what is going on. as I stated, I am simply doing footwork at this point and may not even fight the excise if I do not feel ready in time.