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  #11  
Old 04-24-2007, 05:38 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dillon Hunt
Codee will the officer admit it was a criminal investigation on the stand if there was no injured party?

thanks

I do not know what you mean by "injured party" exactly as that is a term thrown around alot.

The cop will think that it is criminal.

It is not. It is not Civil either.

No one will ever tell the poor cop that.
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  #12  
Old 04-24-2007, 05:41 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dillon Hunt
If an officer will admit a crime was being investigated, then he can be asked if he can prove that someone was injured. (someone real). No Crime Victum equals no Crime. What are we doing here in court? As long as no one admits to committing a Crime!

Where anyone has a right and you violate it you have created an injured party. This means that if you sell alchohol with out the feds permission then you have committed a crime against the feds and have injured the feds as it is their right to regulate the sale of alchohol.

Hope that helps.

PS if you ask the cop he will just say that the state is the injured party and that you injured it by slighting the authority of the state to legislate. (Actually this is kind of how a cop mixed with a magistrate would say.)
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  #13  
Old 04-24-2007, 05:46 PM
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murder robbery etc. a real human damaged, not an infraction , I would like an officer to admit the probable cause for the stop was for a crime not for an infraction.
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We are all in violation of the law somewhere, so is your adversary. Romans 3:23

If you don't turn to Jesus and let him change the way you think, you will perish.

Last edited by Dillon Hunt : 04-24-2007 at 05:55 PM.
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  #14  
Old 04-24-2007, 05:51 PM
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corpus delicti as having three components: (1) the occurrence of the specific kind of injury or loss; (2) somebody's criminality as the source of the loss; and (3) the accused's identity as the doer of this crime not infraction
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Perhaps our earth is round to prevent our discovering a boundary condition restricting our own simulation limits.

We are all in violation of the law somewhere, so is your adversary. Romans 3:23

If you don't turn to Jesus and let him change the way you think, you will perish.
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  #15  
Old 04-24-2007, 06:19 PM
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PS if you ask the cop he will just say that the state is the injured party and that you injured it by slighting the authority of the state to legislate. (Actually this is kind of how a cop mixed with a magistrate would say.)n

Can an officer prove this claim? Was the cop injured, if so what hospital was he admitted to?

thanks
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Perhaps our earth is round to prevent our discovering a boundary condition restricting our own simulation limits.

We are all in violation of the law somewhere, so is your adversary. Romans 3:23

If you don't turn to Jesus and let him change the way you think, you will perish.

Last edited by Dillon Hunt : 04-24-2007 at 06:34 PM.
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  #16  
Old 04-24-2007, 07:47 PM
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So, When pulled over for a non-felony traffic stop, would it be OK to ask an officer if this is a criminal investigation and if so, does he right now at this time have evidence of a crime victim? and if he says no there is no evidence of a crime victim. I would say, I must be free to go since there is no evidence of a crime. .

thanks
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Perhaps our earth is round to prevent our discovering a boundary condition restricting our own simulation limits.

We are all in violation of the law somewhere, so is your adversary. Romans 3:23

If you don't turn to Jesus and let him change the way you think, you will perish.

Last edited by Dillon Hunt : 04-24-2007 at 08:03 PM.
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  #17  
Old 04-25-2007, 06:24 AM
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David Merrill David Merrill is offline
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http://www.suijuris.net/forum/attach...f?d=1176602175


Good model - administrative. I prefer that in administrative law, should one choose to be subject to it, criminal-like penalties can be imposed for breach of contract when one fails to perform obligations.

The sad part is how many people forget that administrative government can only be justified to exist because there is always, always judicial process, remedy and review handy.



Regards,

David Merrill.
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It is worth noting that the fealty to the Pope, which you cited for its explicit mention of the Templar abbey in Dover, is the legal basis for the invalidation of the Magna Carta after it was sealed at Runnymede.
During discussion about the Treaty of 1213 and the Magna Charta (1215).

http://www.yale.edu/lawweb/avalon/medieval/magframe.htm
http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/source/john1a.html
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  #18  
Old 04-25-2007, 07:56 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dillon Hunt
So, When pulled over for a non-felony traffic stop, would it be OK to ask an officer if this is a criminal investigation and if so, does he right now at this time have evidence of a crime victim? and if he says no there is no evidence of a crime victim. I would say, I must be free to go since there is no evidence of a crime. .

thanks

Traditionally a cop doesnot ned to prove every element of a crime for probable cause. However there must be probable cause to an offense.

A felony is not the hinge point. The hinge is whether or not it is a crime or an administrative infraction even if the infraction be a misdemeanor.
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  #19  
Old 04-25-2007, 07:58 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dillon Hunt
Can an officer prove this claim? Was the cop injured, if so what hospital was he admitted to?

The officer does not need to prove claim. The state does. The officer is a witness.

Injuries are not limited to physical injuries.
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  #20  
Old 04-25-2007, 07:58 AM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dillon Hunt
corpus delicti as having three components: (1) the occurrence of the specific kind of injury or loss; (2) somebody's criminality as the source of the loss; and (3) the accused's identity as the doer of this crime not infraction

Can you show me where corpus delecti is part of modern state law?
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