Orginal Title

How does a license relate to title/ownership?
Sorry, it doesnt
Did you get a title from the state or a Certificate of Title?
I purchased it from a friend and then I got the Certificate of Title from New York's DMV

When you bought the truck from the dealer, was the state mentioned in any of the paperwork indicating they were a party to the transaction?
Purchased from friend, and no

If the state has true title, how did they obtain it?
Sorry, I guess I was misinformed
If the state has true title and gives you a title to use it, wouldn't that be a lease?
Sorry, I guess I was misinformed

How did you come by your impressions, are you a parrot?
Must be

If I told you that your impressions were wrong would that satisfy you?
Yes.

[gldskr]

TTOK

Explain how a simple transfer becomes a bailment. How and when does the state get involved with this bailment?

Tread carefully or your presence may be limited.

gldskr

Ok. So how would I go about removing myself from commerce and just go to common law?

[gldskr]

TTOK

Originally Posted by TTOK

The title documents under common law which were various warehouse receipts.

I'll assume these are your run of the mill bill of sale.

Originally Posted by TTOK

These were given to the DMV under the assumption that the purchaser was to use the car and that the use of the car fell under commerce.

Under what authority (other than the buyer) does a dealer have the right to transfer a title document. You state in post 13 that the title is transferred prior to sale. How does that happen? What if the vehicle is not engaged in commerce, does the state send the title back?

Originally Posted by TTOK

The The UCC then kicks in and give DMV to reissue certificate of title documents which document that the car is issued title under the UCC allowing for a made up document at:

You stated that all commerce is federal jurisdiction, but the UCC doesn't apply to the feds, so how can the UCC now kick in and why would it need to?

It seems to me, in this scenario, you've got your bailor and bailee bassackwords.

As to your question in red. I'm not your antagonist, I'm just giving you a heads up.

gldskr

Well. If I resinded my SSN and my U.S. Citizenship to become a state national would I then be out of their reach?

How would I find out this information for New York State?

What am I looking for now?

[gldskr]

TTOK

It seems to me that you don't know what you are talking about. A bailment functions as a pledge of property from the bailor to the bailee. The bailee is entrusted with the property and at some point must return the property to the bailor or otherwise dispose of it per contract.

Pawning your TV creates a bailment; a car rental agreement creates a bailment; overnighting your package with FedEx creates a bailment.

The Document of Title that you cite is a possessary title and exists only to effectuate the terms of the bailment. It does not relate to ownership.

So in your theory, I put down cash to buy a vehicle, the state acquires title somehow and they then let me use it? Clever if it actually happened that way.

Originally Posted by TTOK

I do know that the state takes the title and then re-issues a new title in a different form.

How do you know this; what is your proof? If the state already has title, why do they need to re-issue it in a different form? Is there a re-issue of substance as well? Who are they re-issuing it to? Are they transferring it back to the original buyer? They would then be the bailee and your theory won't work. But if they are the bailor you still haven't explained how this occurred. By magic? Its effect would be that of a lease. I've never signed a lease with the state, have you?

Originally Posted by TTOK

I think by buying the car from a "dealer" there is an assumption that the car must be registered for instate commerce. This is because the state will not let the transfer happen until the state receives the title.

I always get a receipt when I buy stuff, how does the state get my receipt? How do they get the receipt before the sale occurs?

Originally Posted by TTOK

The dealership usually does not own a new car. Thus the dealer is in an extraordinary position of selling something not his.

Not if a bailment is created and he sells them on consignment.

There's only one thing you've said that I can agree with.

Originally Posted by TTOK

The car being purchased for commercial reasons or in commercial circumstances is what determines if it must be registered.

Its use. Who determines that? You do.

gldskr

[gldskr]

TTOK

I edited my last post to preserve your fragile sensitivities.

Originally Posted by TTOK

There is no need to continue writing after an opening like that.

Yes there is. By answering my questions and providing proof of your theory you can make me look a fool, unless you cannot do so and prefer to take the easy way out.

gldskr

[gldskr]

I'm still waiting for some answers to my questions. How was the bailment created? Who is the bailor and who is the bailee, seems your waffling here? Where's the contract that created the bailment? How specifically does the state get involved?