Cody's Right To Travel

[idknow]

Originally Posted by Codee

Correct. However the government is not sovereign. The states are. The state government is not the state. Hence one is the "state" and one is the government.

Your posts like this don't even address isuaes that were discussed. It like you saw the word King and sovereign and then just wrote some off the wall comment about the two.

Try to bring your posts back around to the previous arguments so that they have some relevancy. Some of the content is good. But posts like this just waste time and space.

Codee, this is also wrong;

Sovreignty begins at birth; kings and queens are born.

inamnimate objects, concepts and fictions cannot be royalty.

only people can be.

[Codee]

Originally Posted by idknow

Codee, this is also wrong;

Sovreignty begins at birth; kings and queens are born.

inamnimate objects, concepts and fictions cannot be royalty.

only people can be.

No sovereignty is not a right and it is not held by some mystical force from God.

When the king acted up the barrons nearly killed him. When they had their swords to the kings throat who do you think was sovereign.

The sovereign is he who makes the laws, not he who wishes he made the law.

If you are sovereign in the slightest please tell me of ONE law you have made that I am SUBJECT to. You are ONLY sovereign as long as you deal ONLY with yourself.

If you interact AT ALL then the state is sovereign and so is the law.

[Codee]

Originally Posted by idknow

Shoonra, wrongwrongwrong

the Sovreign IS the people since Chisholm v. Georgia, 1793.
but our sovreignty extends back in time to when we ceased to be subject to and subjects of the king of england.

wow; how wrong can you be?

Well not wrong enough to assume that sovereignty fell upon the people SINCE/DUE TO/BECAUSE OF some crappy supreme court case. A court case has never and will never create a new right.

[idknow]

Originally Posted by Codee

Well not wrong enough to assume that sovereignty fell upon the people SINCE/DUE TO/BECAUSE OF some crappy supreme court case. A court case has never and will never create a new right.

Codee,

Please, if you're not going to actually read what i write then might as well stop reading and ignore me completely.

you failed to incorporate the second clause of my post.

[Codee]

Originally Posted by idknow

Codee,

Please, if you're not going to actually read what i write then might as well stop reading and ignore me completely.

you failed to incorporate the second clause of my post.

I reread and I see what you were saying.

[Codee]

Please Email Codee for post.

[ezrhythm]

My pleasure!

Likewise, prosecutions (that I have seen) do not contain the words, "The People".

Simple grounds for dismissal according to 100(b)?

[idknow]

Originally Posted by Codee

Hmmm...

The California Legislature has changed the enacting clause of hte California statutes from "The people of the state of California represented by setate and assembly do hereby enact..." to "The people of the state of California do hereby enact."

Now I have not found much logical suport for the idea that there is remady in suggesting that the California legislature has usurped the power of hte people... but here is the start.

Thank you EZrythym for reminding me of this issue.

Here is what I have been thinking for a few years since my friend Thomas Thornhill pointed out the change in the enacting clause.

The California Legislature IS DEFINITLY NOT "the people." The people are sovereign AND THEY DO NOT author laws by the assembly. The assembly therefor is not sovereign and the laws they pass are meerly stated as them representing the people. The people are represented by inititive and reforandum. None the less the legislature is not sovereign and therefore cannot write or source laws.

wouldnt such a change in the enacting clause require a const amendment?

[Codee]

Originally Posted by idknow

wouldnt such a change in the enacting clause require a const amendment?

I have not actually found the enacting clause explicitly stated in the California Constitution. Anyone who knows of it, would be of assistance.

[idknow]

Originally Posted by Codee

I have not actually found the enacting clause explicitly stated in the California Constitution. Anyone who knows of it, would be of assistance.

I'm sure you've read the California Const or some facsimile of it

it must be there as the delegated authority of the People to the Legislature to make law otherwise there is no law-making authority!