mortgage

somebody told me find out were the deed is , in get them too put the home on the private side of things whatever that means?

[gldskr]

JAY

Yea, they were right, but the deed has to be converted to a BOE. That's what "private side" means. Phil spells it out for you here, its all pretty much self explanatory.

Cheers

You know, I have my wife in court in a few days and from what I have done I got a underwriter (of a bank) and 'counter-claim' (as the "set-off" account) to make the case of a loan finacial "disturbing" to a creditor that, will not let go. The underwriter has no clue his bank is involved in this counter-suit I did for my wife.

Anyway, I put in a BOE with the surty company acting as the fiducary of the "account" (i.e. counter-claim). This way, if the court decide's AFTER it agree's to the terms that, the counter-claim is true (we put a suit together "agreeing" the debt was in-fact owned to them) and that, we make this claim for the "assumed equal amount" (the orginal claim) of the suit in value of the BOE when the judge make's the decision. In doing so he is bascially granting the BOE is of "good standing" and offer in "consideration" of the court (i.e. the consideration IS the "roll-over" account like, an IRA account at a bank and the surty bond acts as the collateral while the surty "acting" as the fiducary WILL NOT hold anything against my wife).

So, what we've did was offer the BOE to the SEC (Sercuirty & Exchange Commission) as a "stock option" that, she has with UPS. With the consideration of 24,000($ USD), in holding'(s), 85,000 ($ USD) on the counter-claim, and a surty bond (with lawful/legal consideration) that, was forfited to her (200,000) ($ USD) is a claim she will be going in and getting (with another counter-claim) to state the creditor is either going to pay her or will forfit the proceed's of the claim (their orginal claim) they made against her in a court of supposed law in "exchange" of her counter-claim (i.e. the "orginal" claim is in-fact THE SAME as the counter-claim and IF, you agree to the terms of the counter-claim then, they are BOTH an off-set of each other and with consideration "taken" BOTH accounts are settled.) You CAN NOT screw one woman without the other, right? *SMILE*! I did that (off-setting with counter-claims) with a friend that, was in a mortage "dispute" with (F)inancial (O)ne.


The BOE on the other hand is beinging "negtionated" by broker's at the SEC and as soon as she get's a file's a 1099 form with the creditor "claiming" the counter-claim, the orginal claim, and the "offer" (i.e. BOE, surty bond, counter-claim) they will be in a world of hurt! I'm not releasing anything untill we get done. I'll post evidence of the "occasion" (public affair) with you guy's as soon as I can rap "things" up.

Regards,
Phil
Without Recourse

[charlesa6]

JAY432, Welcome to the forum.
There is all kind of deed.
Deed is a transferring title from one person to another. For instance, Warranty deed, Quitclaim deed etc.
You have to get more detail to your questions for knowledgeable members to help you out.

[Notorial dissent]

Originally Posted by gldskr

JAY

Yea, they were right, but the deed has to be converted to a BOE. That's what "private side" means. Phil spells it out for you here, its all pretty much self explanatory.

Cheers

I don’t know where you come up with this nonsense, but it is truly breathtaking in its silliness. A deed cannot be converted into a BOE or anything else for that matter. It is a deed, an instrument of transfer and that is it. Once it is signed and recorded it is a dead item and other than serving as evidence of title it cannot be used for anything else. A Deed bears no resemblance to the legal definition of a BOE.

That meaningless, collation of legalistic gibberish and nonsense that Phil posted is even funnier. He can present whatever nonsense he wants to the SEC, and they will round file it. The SEC regulates the trading of publicly traded companies, it couldn’t give a bigger rat’s ass about some idiot’s BOE. They don’t approve them, they don’t trade them, sell them, or have anything to do with them. The SEC does not have trading brokers so they cannot sell, trade, or negotiate anything, and in fact do not, and if they were brokers before they joined the SEC they are forbidden to trade while they work for the SEC, and if they have brokerage accounts they are under constant scrutiny for fear of compliance issues. The rest of his tirade is even sillier, and if he actually presented any of that in court, he is probably being held under a contempt order, if not being held outright for observation.

[Answerman]

Originally Posted by gldskr

JAY

Yea, they were right, but the deed has to be converted to a BOE. That's what "private side" means. Phil spells it out for you here, its all pretty much self explanatory.

Cheers

Say WHAT?

A DEED is not a negotiable instrument! If you ever read your loan docs, which now I can't possibly see how you could have, the deed is EVIDENCED by the signed promissory note that was signed. THAT is your negotiable instrument.

WOW, I won't even touch the rest.

[gldskr]

ND and Answerman

It was for entertainment purposes only. Ol' Jay's been pulling your leg, jus thought I'd give his a little tug as well.

gldskr

[Answerman]

Well, Shucks!!!

I've been schnookered!!!

I guess I will take my little ball and go home :(

[theghost]

Originally Posted by Notorial dissent

Robby, I have threatened no one, I have done no lies, I have however suggested that people might actually read what they are assuming so much about, now if that is not a part of learning, then why does this offend you so much?


Pity you really didn’t read Art 9, it does deal with secured transactions, but it is referring to commercial paper and commodities sales. You know what I liked the best though, that being the section you didn’t read, the part about what it specifically doesn’t apply to, that part about interest or lien on real property that specifically isn’t covered by the UCC. Yep, I really liked that part best of all. Pity you didn’t read it.

I didn’t say you couldn’t file a UCC-1, I just said it was invalid, and as to your little stunt with the judge, that’ll land you in jail these days, and it is still called fraud.

Why don't you quote exactly what you are referring to? Mortgage=Security ineterest=UCC-1, whether or not the standard UCC-1 form is used or filed, the outcome is the same. It is absurd to state that a commercial transaction regarding real estate is exempt from UCC regulation. I proved it with the judge. By the way, I don't believe the judge that I filed one of these against was feeling extra benevolent towards me. If I committed fraud, I'd be in jail, period, end of story. The fact of the matter is, he ran to an attorney to get him out of it, wherein HE and his attorney committed fraud, through a fraudulent conveyance. Now why would a judge go to all this trouble if my UCC-1 was so invalid/fraudulent??? I wonder........

[Notorial dissent]

Please feel free to read the section in question, you're such an expert you should have no problem finding it, and it is there. I found it in about 30 seconds, so you should have no problem being the expert that you are in the UCC.

A UCC-1 is valid only on non-real property and tangible collateral. The UCC does not apply to real estate, except in the case of moveable fixtures and materials.

I never said you couldn't file a UCC-1, just that it is invalid for real estate.

Now go and read what you claim you know so much about.

[Extramural]

Why do all the other members here have post count and membership dates, but not JAY432?

Weird.